My 'allegation' was accompanied by documented fact. Yours not so much.
I don't think you can get a better documented fact than Statistics Canada in this country. Sorry the link didn't work, hopefully it is fixed now. A very simple google search on the CANSIM table I referenced would have taken you to it. I don't understand why you think it is irrelevant to the discussion, when you yourself introduced that topic:
Regardless of what measure of income you use (market, total or after-tax) or which threshold you use (top 10 per cent, five per cent, one per cent, 0.1 per cent, 0.01 per cent) you get the same answer: top-end income shares peaked in 2006 and have been declining since then.
I picked one of the measures you suggested (total, 1%) and saw that it in fact did not peak in 2006 but continued to increase yearly with the exception of 2009 where it decreased only marginally and then started to soar back up.